Barrister Sample Practice Questions
Civil Litigation
Hassan, a plaintiff, fails to set his action down for trial within the 5-year period required under Rule 48.14. As a result, the registrar administratively dismisses the action. Hassan states that he did not receive the Form 48D dismissal order and brings a motion 3 months later under Rule 37.14 to set aside the dismissal and reinstate the action.
What must Hassan establish for the court to grant his motion?
A) That the claim has a reasonable prospect of success and that he was unaware of the dismissal.
B) That he did not receive proper notice of the dismissal, acted promptly once he became aware of it, and reinstatement would not cause substantial prejudice to the defendant.
C) That the delay is adequately explained, he intended to proceed, he acted promptly once aware of the dismissal, and the defendant would not suffer significant prejudice.
D) That the failure to set the action down was inadvertent, the dismissal was not on the merits, and the defendant cannot demonstrate actual prejudice.
Criminal Law
Amanda was convicted at trial of dangerous operation causing bodily harm under s. 320.13(2), following a single-vehicle collision in which the complainant was thrown from the passenger seat. The Crown’s case relied heavily on the complainant’s testimony that Amanda had been speeding and swerving erratically. After sentencing, Amanda learned that the complainant had privately told a third party that some of his trial testimony was exaggerated and that he had in fact encouraged Amanda to speed. Amanda’s appellate counsel obtains a sworn affidavit from this third party and a recording of the complainant admitting to exaggeration. She seeks to introduce this evidence as fresh evidence on appeal.
What must the Court of Appeal assess before admitting this new material?
A) Whether the evidence casts doubt on the complainant’s credibility and supports a more lenient sentence.
B) Whether the new information was known to trial counsel and whether it contradicts key findings of fact.
C) Whether it meets the four-part test requiring diligence, materiality, reliability, and potential impact on the verdict.
D) Whether the evidence would have been admissible at trial and whether it supports Amanda’s version of events.
Family Law
Amara is the sole custodial parent of her 10-year-old daughter, with whom she has lived since separating from the child’s father, David. Their separation agreement does not mention name changes. Amara applies to the Registrar General to change her daughter’s last name to her own, without David’s knowledge. David receives notice of the application weeks later and wants to stop it. He contacts a lawyer, who confirms he cannot block the change through the Registrar General alone.
What is David’s most appropriate next step?
A) File a written objection with the Registrar General and request a discretionary review.
B) Apply for a publication delay while exploring possible legal remedies.
C) Commence a court application to prohibit the name change or vary the parenting terms.
D) Contact the Ministry of the Attorney General to request intervention based on parental rights.
Public Law
A provincial police agency adopts an internal policy prohibiting officers from posting any political opinions on social media, even when off-duty. Maya, an officer, is disciplined after writing a blog post supporting a municipal candidate. She challenges the disciplinary action under s. 2(b) of the Charter, claiming it violates her freedom of expression. The agency argues that the Charter does not apply to internal discipline policies and that the restriction is necessary to maintain public confidence in neutrality. The reviewing court must first determine whether the Charter even applies to the agency’s policy before addressing s. 1.
Which is the most accurate statement about the Charter's application?
A) The Charter applies to all employment contracts with public-sector employers.
B) The Charter does not apply to internal policies unless they are issued pursuant to legislative authority.
C) The Charter applies where the impugned policy reflects government action or a statutory mandate.
D) The Charter applies only when policies directly affect the administration of justice or prosecutorial discretion.
Professional Responsibility
Janelle represents a client in a complex civil matter involving a former partner. During the retainer, the client provides Janelle with confidential information concerning the dispute. Later, the former partner sues Janelle for defamation arising from statements allegedly made by Janelle during the representation. Janelle considers disclosing some of the client’s confidential information to defend herself.
Is she permitted to disclose this information?
A) No, because information obtained during a retainer can never be disclosed without the client’s express consent.
B) Yes, provided the disclosure is strictly necessary to respond to the allegations and does not exceed what is required.
C) No, unless a court determines the disclosure is essential and expressly authorizes it.
D) Yes, but only if the client is notified in advance and does not object to the disclosure.
ANSWERS
Civil Litigation
Hassan, a plaintiff, fails to set his action down for trial within the 5-year period required under Rule 48.14. As a result, the registrar administratively dismisses the action. Hassan states that he did not receive the Form 48D dismissal order and brings a motion 3 months later under Rule 37.14 to set aside the dismissal and reinstate the action.
What must Hassan establish for the court to grant his motion?
A) That the claim has a reasonable prospect of success and that he was unaware of the dismissal.
B) That he did not receive proper notice of the dismissal, acted promptly once he became aware of it, and reinstatement would not cause substantial prejudice to the defendant.
C) That the delay is adequately explained, he intended to proceed, he acted promptly once aware of the dismissal, and the defendant would not suffer significant prejudice.
D) That the failure to set the action down was inadvertent, the dismissal was not on the merits, and the defendant cannot demonstrate actual prejudice.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: On a motion to set aside a dismissal for delay, the court considers whether there is a satisfactory explanation for the litigation delay, whether the plaintiff intended to prosecute the action but failed to do so through inadvertence, whether the plaintiff moved promptly after learning of the dismissal, and whether the defendant has suffered significant prejudice. These factors are weighed contextually to determine the just result.
Criminal Law
Amanda was convicted at trial of dangerous operation causing bodily harm under s. 320.13(2), following a single-vehicle collision in which the complainant was thrown from the passenger seat. The Crown’s case relied heavily on the complainant’s testimony that Amanda had been speeding and swerving erratically. After sentencing, Amanda learned that the complainant had privately told a third party that some of his trial testimony was exaggerated and that he had in fact encouraged Amanda to speed. Amanda’s appellate counsel obtains a sworn affidavit from this third party and a recording of the complainant admitting to exaggeration. She seeks to introduce this evidence as fresh evidence on appeal.
What must the Court of Appeal assess before admitting this new material?
A) Whether the evidence casts doubt on the complainant’s credibility and supports a more lenient sentence.
B) Whether the new information was known to trial counsel and whether it contradicts key findings of fact.
C) Whether it meets the four-part test requiring diligence, materiality, reliability, and potential impact on the verdict.
D) Whether the evidence would have been admissible at trial and whether it supports Amanda’s version of events.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: To admit fresh evidence on appeal, the moving party must meet the four-part test from R v Palmer: (1) the evidence could not have been obtained with due diligence before trial; (2) it is relevant to a material issue; (3) it is reasonably credible; and (4) it could reasonably be expected to have affected the result. The appellate court retains discretion and may exclude the evidence even if all criteria are technically met.
Family Law
Amara is the sole custodial parent of her 10-year-old daughter, with whom she has lived since separating from the child’s father, David. Their separation agreement does not mention name changes. Amara applies to the Registrar General to change her daughter’s last name to her own, without David’s knowledge. David receives notice of the application weeks later and wants to stop it. He contacts a lawyer, who confirms he cannot block the change through the Registrar General alone.
What is David’s most appropriate next step?
A) File a written objection with the Registrar General and request a discretionary review.
B) Apply for a publication delay while exploring possible legal remedies.
C) Commence a court application to prohibit the name change or vary the parenting terms.
D) Contact the Ministry of the Attorney General to request intervention based on parental rights.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Since David is a non-custodial parent, the Change of Name Act does not require his consent, but he is entitled to notice under s. 5(6). The Registrar General does not have discretion to deny the change solely on the basis of his objection without a court order. To prevent the name change, David must bring a court application to vary the parenting arrangement or to prohibit the change, potentially by injunction.
Public Law
A provincial police agency adopts an internal policy prohibiting officers from posting any political opinions on social media, even when off-duty. Maya, an officer, is disciplined after writing a blog post supporting a municipal candidate. She challenges the disciplinary action under s. 2(b) of the Charter, claiming it violates her freedom of expression. The agency argues that the Charter does not apply to internal discipline policies and that the restriction is necessary to maintain public confidence in neutrality. The reviewing court must first determine whether the Charter even applies to the agency’s policy before addressing s. 1.
Which is the most accurate statement about the Charter's application?
A) The Charter applies to all employment contracts with public-sector employers.
B) The Charter does not apply to internal policies unless they are issued pursuant to legislative authority.
C) The Charter applies where the impugned policy reflects government action or a statutory mandate.
D) The Charter applies only when policies directly affect the administration of justice or prosecutorial discretion.
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Charter applies to government actions, including those by entities carrying out statutory duties or implementing government policy. In Doucet-Boudreau and Eldridge, the courts held that administrative decisions and internal policies of public bodies can engage the Charter if they are made pursuant to statutory authority or fulfill a governmental objective. Internal policies of police agencies, when disciplining employees under statutory mandates, may fall within this scope.
Professional Responsibility
Janelle represents a client in a complex civil matter involving a former partner. The client sends Janelle an email asking whether certain facts could result in criminal charges. Janelle replies cautiously, explaining the risks and potential outcomes. Later, the former partner sues Janelle for defamation, alleging her reply constituted an accusation. Janelle considers submitting the email chain to defend herself.
Is she permitted to disclose this information?
A) No, because the communication is presumptively privileged and cannot be shared without the client’s express consent.
B) Yes, provided the disclosure is strictly necessary to respond to the allegations and does not exceed what is required.
C) No, unless a court determines the disclosure is essential and authorizes a limited exception to privilege.
D) Yes, but only if the client is notified in advance and does not object to the use of privileged information.
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Rule 3.3-4 of the Law Society of Ontario’s Rules of Professional Conduct permits a lawyer to disclose confidential information where reasonably necessary to defend against allegations of civil liability involving a client’s affairs. Any disclosure must be limited to what is required for that purpose. This exception to the duty of confidentiality should not be confused with solicitor-client privilege, which is a distinct legal protection and is not displaced merely by Rule 3.3-4.